Provided I raise a first investment from angel on X valuation, then raise another one from same angel on X+Y valuation, what would be the total amount of percentage the angel will have of the company?
I mean, it's clear his/her first investment percentage will become lower, but how these two percentage are summed?
I guess it's pretty trivial to calculate, but for some I reason I have a mind block at this time of the night.
You don't sell the angel percentages, you sell the angel shares.
A higher valuation implies a higher share price.
For instance, if you
the angel now has 1500 shares.
At any given time the percentage of the company that the investor owns is equal to the number of shares they have divided by the number of shares outstanding.